Cirrus SR-20 N699YZ User manual

CIRRUS SR-20
N699YZ, Serial No. SR-20-2448
(revised 09/11/2018)
General, POH Section 1
1. Engine Model: Lycoming 10-390-C3136
2. Engine Horsepower rating: 215hp @ 2700 rpm
3. Propellor type: Three-blade, constant-speed Hartzell
4. Fuel capacity: 58.5 gallons total, 56.0 gallons useable
5. Fuel type: 100 LL (blue), 100 (green)
6. Oil capacity: 7 quarts (note; min. Quantity, 6 qts.)
7. Oil grades: Above 40℉ - SAE 40, all temps SAE 15W-50 or SAE 20W-50
8. Maximum gross weight for takeoff: 3,150 lbs.
9. Maximum gross weight for landing: 3,150 lbs.
10.N699YZ empty weight (see book at dispatch counter): 2145 lbs.
11.N699YZ payload with full fuel (book on dispatch counter): 668 lbs.
12.N699YZ useful load: 849 lbs.
13. Wing loading: 22 lbs per square foot. (A 182 is 17 lbs/ft )²
14.Power loading: 15 lbs. per hp.(A 182 is 13 lbs/hp)
15. V₀: Operating Maneuvering Speed- maximum speed at which application of full
control movement will not overstress the airplane. 113 KIAS.
16.Vpd: Maximum parachute deployment speed. 135 KIAS
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17.VS50% and VSO: Stall speed with 50% and 100% flaps extended.
LIMITATIONS, POH Section 2
18.VNE, VNO, VO, VPD: 201 KIAS, 164, 133, 15050%/110100%, 135
19.Zero fuel weight: 2,814 lbs.
20.Maximum weight in baggage compartment: 130 lbs.
21.Center of gravity reference datum: 100 inches forward of firewall
22.Flap limitations: Takeoff- 0% or 50%. Landing- 100%, however 0% or 50% can
be used if malfunction or other conditions deem it appropriate.
23.Allow flight load factors: Flaps up -+3.8g, -1.9g. Flaps extended-+1.9g, -0g.
24.Maximum fuel imbalance limit: 7.5 gallons (¼ tank)
25.Maximum operating altitude: 17,500 ft. MSL
26.Temperature limit and paint limitations: 150℉ (66℃), approved white paint.
27.Runway surface and smoking limitations: Smooth runway surface, no smoking
28.Maximum demonstrated parachute deployment speed: 135 KIAS
29.Multi-function display limitation: Not approved as a primary navigation instrument.
Information may be used for advisory purposes only.
30.Flight into known icing conditions: Prohibited.
31.Battery requirements: Battery 1-IFR and VFR. Battery 2- IFR.
32.Alternator requirements: Alternator 1- IFR and VFR. Alternator 2- IFR.
33.List remaining equipment that’s required for all operations: Ammeter, low volts,
and alternator annunciators; ELT; fire extinguisher; flaps system and flap position
lights; pitch and bank trim systems and indicators; fuel boost pump, quantity
indicator, and selector valve; alternate engine-air induction system; alternate
static source; anti-collision lights; standby altimeter and airspeed indicators;
magnetic compass; pitot system, static system (normal); fuel flow, manifold
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pressure, oil pressure, and oil temperature gauges; tachometer; airframe
parachute, and airplane flight manual.
34.When is the vertical speed indicator, multi-function display, and cylinder head
temperature gauge required? Never.
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES, POH Section 3
35.Maneuvering speed: 3,150 lbs-133, 2700 lbs-123, 2,300 lbs- 114 KIAS.
36.Best glide speeds: 3,150 lbs- 100, 2,600 lbs- 92 KIAS.
37.Emergency landing speeds: flaps up- 89, flaps 50%- 83, flaps 100%- 78 KIAS.
38.Engine induction-system fire during start procedure: Mixture cutoff, fuel pump off,
fuel selector off, power lever full forward, engage starter.
39. Engine failure in flight procedure: Establish best glide, mixture full rich, switch
fuel tanks, fuel pump on boost, alternate induction air on, ignition switch check
both.
40.Engine airstart procedure: Battery master switches on, power level ½” open,
mixture rich, switch fuel tanks, ignition switch on both, fuel pump onboost,
alternate induction air on, alternator master switches off, engage starter if prop
not windmilling, slowly increase power lever, alternator master switches on when
engine starts.
41.If a partial power loss occurs or the engine starts running rough, what initial
action should be performed: Fuel pump on BOOST.
42.If the engine fuel pump fails completely, will the fuel pump’s boost position
provide enough fuel to keep the engine running? No, but it will keep the engine
running of the engine pump has a partial failure.
43.Propellor governor failure procedure: If RPM will not increase, check oil pressure
and land as soon as practical. If RPM overspeeds or will not decrease, adjust
power lever to keep RPM within limits, reduce to 80 knots, and land as soon as
practial.
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44.Engine fire in flight procedure: Mixture cutoff, fuel pump off, power level idle, fuel
selector off ignition switch off.
45.Wing fire in flight procedure: Pitot heat, navigation lights and strobe lights off.
Land as soon as possible.
46.Emergency descent procedure: POwer lever idle, mixture full rich, and airspeed
at VNE (201 kts).
47.Door open in flight procedure: Reduce airspeed to 80 to 90 knots and land as
soon as practical. If not latched, door will remain 1 to 3 inches open in flight.
48.CAPS deployment procedure: Airspeed as slow as possible (max demonstrated
was 135 kts.) mixture cutoff is possible, cover removed, pull activation handle
from its holder and then clasp handle with both hands and pull straight down in a
strong, steady and continuous motion. Maintain pull force until rocket activates.
Bending of the handle-housing mount is to be expected.
49.CAPS after-deployment procedure: Mixture check cutoff, fuel selector off, bat-alt
master switches off, ignition switch off, fuel pump off, ELT on (located below CB
panel), seat belts and harnesses tightened, loose items secure, and assume
emergency landing body position.
50.Describe the emergency landing body position: Cross your arms across your
chest, firmly grasp the shoulder harness, and hold your upper torso erect. The
landing force is equivalent to a drop from 10 feet above the ground.
51.An alternator malfunctions. What indication would occur? The ALT caution light
would illuminate in the annunciator panel, and the ammeter would probably
indicate an excessive charge or discharge rate.
52.What does the term “self-exciting” alternator mean? The alternator requires
battery voltage only for starting. Once started, it provides self-generated field
power to continue operation in case of battery failure.
53.If electrical loads must be reduced due to alternator failure, should you switch off
electrical components that are not essential to flight or pull circuit breakers? Wy?
Switch off electrical components in order to prevent accidental circuit breaker
disconnection and loss of power to flight-critical systems.
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54.ALT 1 light in steady. The cause and procedure is: Cause: Wiring fault or
malfunctioning alternator or control unit. Procedure: ALT 1 master switch off, ALT
1CB checked and reset, ALT 1 master switch on. If alternator does not reset,
reduce loads on main buses 1 and 2 and on the non-essential buses, and
monitor voltage, turn the ALT 1 master switch off, and land as soon as practical.
55.ALT1 light flashing. The cause and procedure is: Cause: A severely discharged
battery, which causes an excessive charging rate, along with heavy equipment
loads. Procedure: Ammeter switch on BATT. If charging rate is greater than 30
amps, reduce load on main busses 1 and 2 and on the non-essential bses.
Monitor ammeter until battery charge rate is less than 15 amps. When charge
rate is within limits, add loads as necessary for flight conditions.
56.ALT 2 light steady. The cause and procedure is: Cause: Failure of ALT 2 or rpm
below 1,700 to 2,200. Procedure: ALT 2 master switch off, ALT 2 CB checked
and reset, ALT 2 master switch on. If alternator does not reset, reduce loads on
main buses 1 and 2 and on the non-essential buses, turn the ALT 2 master
switch off, and land as soon as practical. (Essential bus loads will now be
powered from ALT 1, BAT 1, and BAT 2.)
57.LOW VOLTS warning light illuminated procedure: Cause: Voltage is 24.5 volts or
less and you are on battery power only because both alternators have failed or
are off. Procedure: If both alternators have failed, land as soon as possible.
58.Communications failure procedure: Check switches and controls, change
frequency, check, circuit breakers, change headset, and connect the hand-held
microphone. (Note: if the audio panel power fails, the audio panel power fails, the
audio panel connects COM 1 to the pilot’s headset and speakers. The same
thing will happen if you turn the audio panel off.)
59.Power level linkage failure: Use available power and flaps as required to safely
land the airplane. If power is stuck at or near full power, use the mixture control
to control power for descent. Plan a power-off approach and landing. If power is
such that you cannot maintain straight and level flight, plan a forced landing.
60.Electric trim/autopilot failure: Maintain airplane control manually (override the
autopilot or trim) and disengage the autopilot if it was engaged. Pull the PITCH
TRIM, ROLL TRIM, or AUTOPILOT CB as required. Land as soon as practical.
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NORMAL PROCEDURES, POH Section 4
61.Normal Vy, and Vx climb speeds at sea level: 96, 96 and 81 KIAS.
62.Landing approach speeds, flaps up, 50% and 100%: 89, 84, and 78 KIAS
63.Maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity, takeoff or landing: 20 knots
64.During the cabin inspection before the walk-around, what is the first thing you do
after you turn on the BAT 2 master switch? Check the avionics cooling fan.
65.How is the fuel pump used for starting? PRIME for 2 seconds then BOOST
66.What is starter motor’s duty time? Intervals of 20 seconds on, 20 seconds off in
order to improve battery and contractor life.
67.When should the fuel pump be on BOOST? Engine start, takeoff, and landing;
and whenever hot fuel conditions exist, fuel pressure fluctuates, or switching fuel
tanks.
68.When are the ALT master switches turned on? After engine start.
69.How do you start a flooded engine? Turn fuel pump off, allow fuel to drain from
the intake tubes, mixture full lean, power lever full open, crank the engine
through several revolutions. When it starts, retard the power lever and slowly
advance the mixture to full rich.
70.How do you maintain directional control when taxiing? With rudder and
differential braking. In crosswind conditions, some continual brake force may be
required.
71.How do you check the autopilot disconnect be checked before takeoff? Even
though it’s not a Cirrus checklist item, this action should always occur: Press the
HDG button to engage the autopilot. Check control forces. Now, press the yoke’s
autopilot disconnect button (the coolie hat) to ensure autopilot disconnect.
72.How do you check the propeller operation during the runup? Move the power
lever up to the detent. Approximately 2,000 rpm should occur, and it should drop
about 100 rpm as the power lever is set in the detent.
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73.What is the rpm tolerance during the mag check? 175 rpm max drop and both
drops must be within 50 rpm of each other.
74.Is an idle check required before takeoff? It’s not on Cirrus’s checklist, but that’s
not good. At the conclusion of an engine runup, particularly with a fuel injected
engine, an idle check is mandatory.
75.What flap setting is used for short- and soft-field takeoffs? 50%
76.Should the mixture be leaned during climb? As required.
77.During cruise flight when and how do you lean for best power or best economy?
When at 75% power or less, use the MFD’s lean assist or manually lean to 100°
rich of peak EGT for best power or peak EGT for best economy.
78.When can you land with less than full flaps? Only when the flaps fail to deploy or
when it’s necessary to extend glide distance due to an engine malfunction.
79.What is the short-field approach speed and the restriction that applies to braking?
78 KIAS. Apply normal brake pressure and announce “simulating max braking”.
80.What is the crosswind landing technique? Use full flaps and avoid prolonged
slips.
81.If the ELT activates after a hard landing, how do you turn it off? Press the reset
button on the ELT control panel that’s located below the circuit breaker panel.
PERFORMANCE DATA, POH Section 5
82.When determining airplane performance, what should you do if the ambient
temperature is less than or greater than the chart value? Less than: Use the
lowest published temperature, which will result in a more conservative
performance calculation. More than: Use extreme caution as performance
degrades rapidly at higher temperatures.
83.Are performance figures always reliable? No. Range and endurance variations of
10% or more can occur due to variations in fuel metering, mixture leaning
technique, engine and propellor condition, and air turbulence.
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84.Refer to Flight Planning on page 5-14 of the POH. Using the Sample Problem’s
configuration and conditions, confirm the answers given for takeoff, climb, cruise,
fuel required, and landing by using figures 5-15 through 5-32. (This is a practical
exercise to ensure your understanding of the performance charts).
85.When using the alternate static air system and flying at 80 KIAS, what is the
KCAS with 100% flaps? 72 KCAS.
86.When using the alternate static air system and flying at 80 KIAS at sea level,
what is the altitude correction with 50% flaps? Subtract 7 feet.
WEIGHT AND BALANCE, POH Section 6
87.Is OCFC’s N699YZ legal to fly based on the following information? Yes, but the
airplane is at its forward CG limit.
Basic empty weight: 2145 lbs.
Empty moment/1,000: 306.211
Fuel: 56 gallons useable
Pilot: 210 lbs.
Front seat passenger: 170 lbs.
Rear seat passenger: 140 lbs.
88.Just after takeoff in the previous problem, the pilot realizes that his wallet (pilot
certificate and medical) is in his car. Is he legal to immediately return and land?
Yes, the maximum landing weight is 3,150 lbs.
AIRPLANE AND SYSTEMS DESCRIPTION, POH Section 7
89. The airplane is made from composite materials for aerodynamic efficiency. What
material is used for the rudder, elevator, ailerons, and wing flaps? Aluminum.
90.What is the rudder-aileron interconnect? It provides a maximum of 8° down
aileron with full rudder deflection. Right rudder will cause right roll input and left
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rudder input will cause left roll input. (This may be why the airplane roll is
sensitive. Aileron input coupled with rudder input compounds the aileron input.)
91.The airplane does not have a flight-control gust lock, and you are not required to
secure the control yoke with a seat belt when the airplane is tied down. Why not?
Because the rudder, aileron and elevator trim spring cartridges have sufficient
power to act as a gust damper.
92.What are the small tabs on the elevator, rudder and right aileron? Ground
adjustable trim tabs that are factory set and do not normally require adjustment.
93.A conical trim button (called a “coolie hat”) activates the aileron and elevator trim
motors when moved left or right or up or down. When pushed down, it?
Disconnects the autopilot if engaged.
94.How do you position the elevator trim and the aileron trim to the neutral position?
Elevator: Align the yoke’s reference ,arl with the metal tab that’s attached to the
instrument panel bolster- the rounded portion that extends across the cockpit
beneath the instrument panel. Aileron: Align the force-and-aft line that’s etched
on the control yoke with the centering indication that’s marked on the bolster.
95.If the elevator control system or aileron control system failed due to something
other than a jammed elevator or a jammed aileron, how could you control the
airplane? Use the elevator or the aileron trim control system.
96.What is the yaw trim system? A spring cartridge attach to the rudder control
system that provides a centering force whenever the rudder is deflected. It is
ground adjustable only.
97.What backup flight instruments are available if the PFD fails? Altimeter, airspeed,
attitude indicator, and magnetic compass.
98.Does the airplane have a traditional turn coordinator? Yes, but it’s out of view
behind the right instrument panel bolster and it’s only used by the autopilot.
99.What is the primary heading source for the multifunction display? The PFD.
100. What adjustments can be made for the front seats? Fore and aft and
seat-back tilt.
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101. Why can’t you kneel or stand on the pilot and passenger seats? Because
you’ll crush the seat bottom’s integral aluminum honeycomb core, which is
designed to crush under impact and absorb downward loads that would occur
during a parachute landing.
102. How can you carry bulky cargo that exceeds the baggage compartment’s
length? Unlatch the rear seat backs from within the baggage compartment and
fold the seat backs down.
103. When the shoulder harnesses are attached you have complete freedom of
movement. How, then, are you protected in the event of a crash? The harnesses
are attached to inertial reels which automatically lock during sudden deceleration.
104. How could you evacuate the airplane if the cabin doors were jammed shut?
Use the ball-peen type hammer that’s located in the center armrest to break the
acrylic windows and form an escape path.
105. You are required to visually inspect the fire extinguisher before each flight.
What must you ensure? The nozzle is unobstructed, the pin has not been pulled,
and the canister has not been damaged.
106. Are the rudder pedals connected to the nose gear for steering? No.
107. So how do you steer the airplane? Differential braking.
108. Describe the brake system: A master cylinder for each rudder pedal, one
hydraulic fluid reservoir, a parking brake valve, and a single disc brake on each
main wheel.
109. How do you set the parking brake? Apply the rudder-pedal toe brakes, and
while set, pull the PARK BRAKE knob aft. It’s located near the pilot’s right ankle
on the left side of the console.
110. What is the minimum quantity for engine oil? 6 quarts.
111. Describe the fuel injection system: It’s a continuous-flow system. The engine
driven fuel pump draws fuel from the selected wing tank and sends it to the fuel
pump’s integral mixture control valve. This valve proportions fuel in response to
the pilot operated mixture control lever position and automatically provides
altitude compensation to supply the proper full rich mixture at any altitude. Fuel is
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then sent to the fuel-metering valve on the air-induction system throttle body,
which adjusts fuel flow in response to the pilot controlled lever position. From the
metering valve, fuel is directed to the fuel manifold valve (spider) and then to the
individual injector nozzles.
112. Describe the electric fuel pump operation? It’s an oil pressure based system
that allows the pump to run at high speed (PRIME) when engine oil pressure is
less than 10 psi. Above 10 psi, PRIME has no effect. BOOST energizes the
pump in the low-speed mode regardless of oil pressure in order to provide
continuous fuel flow for vapor suppression in a hot fuel condition.
113. Where is the friction control wheel located? On the right side of the console.
114. How does the power lever (throttle) function? It adjusts the engine throttle
setting in addition to automatically adjusting propeller speed.
115. The power lever system is set to maintain what rpm? Approximately 2,500
rpm throughout the cruise power settings and 2,700 rpm at full power.
116. How does the mixture control lever function? It is mechanically linked to the
mixture control valve in the engine driven fuel pump and controls the mixture at
that point.
117. Which battery master switch activates the engine’s start/ignition switch? BAT
1.
118. Describe the function,location, and operation of the alternate air control knob:
It opens the alternate air induction door on the engine induction air manifold in
the engine compartment, bypasses the dry induction air filter, and allows warm
unfiltered air to enter the engine. It is located near the pilot’s right ankle on the
console. Depress the center lock button, pull to open, and then release the
button.
119. What will activate the engine oil warning light? High temperature or low
pressure.
120. How does the propellor system function? The propeller governor senses
engine speed by means of flyweights and senses throttle setting through a cable
connected to the power control lever (throttle). Moving the power lever forward
reduces governor oil pressure and allows centrifugal force to decrease propeller
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pitch for higher rpm. Moving the power lever aft increases governor oil pressure
which increases propeller pitch for lower rpm. During stabilized flight, the
governor adjusts propeller pitch in order to maintain a specific rpm.
121. Describe the basic fuel system: A vented fuel tank and a fuel collector
tank/sump in each wing, a three-position valve, an electric boost pump, and an
engine-driven fuel pump. Excess fuel at the engine driven fuel pump is routed
back to the selected fuel tank through fuel return lines and the fuel selector valve.
(Note; the key for the lockable fuel caps is located in the arm rest storage box).
122. Describe the fuel venting system: The collector tank is vented into its
respective fuel tank, which is vented to a NACA-type vent mounted underneath
the wing near each wing tip.
123. What are the locations of the fuel drains? Five total: One under each fuel
tank, one under each collector tank/sump, and one under the gascolator, which is
below the lower engine cowl just forward of the firewall.
124. How much useable fuel exists if the tanks are filled to the tabs? 26 gallons, 13
in each fuel tank.
125. Left fuel tank is empty; right tank has 10 gal. Will the FUEL caution light be
on? No, both tanks must have approximately 8.5 gallons for the light to activate.
126. What problem can occur when the fuel tanks are ¼ full or less? Prolonged
uncoordinated flight such as skips or skids for more than 30 seconds can
uncover the fuel tank outlets and cause fuel starvation.
127. What is the proper use of the boost pump switch? For engine starting,
pressing PRIME (a momentary position) causes the boost pump to operate at a
high speed until the fuel pressure reaches 2 to 4 psi. When that pressure is
attained, the boost pump automatically switches to the low speed BOOST mode
(a selectable position) to provide a 4 to 6 psi fuel pressure boost. For vapor
suppression with hot fuel, select the BOOST position, which provides a 4 to 6 psi
fuel pressure boost. Select the BOOST position for takeoff and landing.
128. Refer to Figure 3-2 on page 3-26 of the POH, and describe the electrical
system: There are two batteries and two alternators. BAT 1 and ALT 1 supply the
main distribution bus which powers MAIN BUS 1, MAIN BUS 2,
NON-ESSENTIAL BUS 1, and NON-ESSENTIAL BUS 2. BAT 2 and ALT 2
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supply the essential distribution bus which powers the ESSENTIAL BUSES.
Notice the diode between the two distribution buses. If BAT 2 and ALT 2 fail, BAT
1 and ALT 1 will power their normal buses AND  the essential busses. If BAT 1
and ALT1 fail, BAT 2 and ALT 2 will power ONLY  their essential buses. The
remaining buses will receive no power.
129. Return to the Electrical System on page 7-53 of the POH. Describe alternator
1: ALT 1 is a gear-driven, internally rectified (converts AC to DC), 100-amp
alternator that’s mounted on the front of the engine. It is regulated to 28.0 volts.
130. Describe alternator 2: ALT 2 is a belt-driven, internally rectified, 28 amp
alternator mounted on the accessory at the rear of the engine. It is regulated to
28.75 volts.
131. Describe both batteries: BAT 1 s a 24-volt, 10-amp-hour battery mounted on
the firewall. BAT 2 is composed of two 12-volt, 7-amp-hour batteries connected
in series to provide 24 volts and located behind the aft cabin bulkhead.
132. Why do you think that ALT 2 is regulated to a higher voltage than ALT 1 (This
is not explained well in the POH)? Voltage is like water pressure. Because ALT 2
has more pressure, it prevents ALT 1 from powering the essential buses during
normal operation of the electrical system. ALT 1 can power the essential buses
only if ALT 2 fails.
133. Why should the batteries and alternators not be turned off in flight? Because
both alternators are self-exciting (not self-starting) and require battery voltage
only for field excitation in order to start operating.
134. What equipment is on the essential buses? Annunciator lights, turn
coordinator, PFD, stall warning, battery 2, alternator 2, autopilot, and COM 1 and
GPS 1 (ADA HRS 1, STBDYATTD)
135. How can you prove what the essential buses power? With the engine running
on the ground , turn off ALT 1 and BAT 1, but leave ALT 2, BAT 2, and the
avionics switch on. Now observe what works and what doesn’t work.
136. How can you check to see if the distribution buses isolation diode has failed?
Turn on only BAT 2 and the avionics switch and COM 2 or NAV 2. If either one
works, the diode has failed.
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137. For ALT 1 or ALT 2 to start, battery power must be available. TRUE.
138. When must the avionics switch be off? Prior to activating the MASTER
switches, starting the engine, or applying an external power source.
139. What causes the LOW VOLTS warning light to illuminate: Volts less than
approximately 24.5 volts.
140. What does the Volt/Amp meter indicate? Essential bus voltage, main bus
voltages ALT 1, ALT 2, BAT 1 amps.
141. What is indicated when an ALT fail caution light flashes? When it is on
steady? Flashes: over-current condition. Steady: alternator failure.
142. Where is the ground service receptacle located and where do you find the
procedure? Location: Just aft of the cowl on the left side. Procedure: POH,
Section 8, Ground Handling, Servicing, and Maintenance.
143. What is the convenience outlet? A 12-volt outlet in the center console that can
be used for portable entertainment equipment.
144. List the exterior lights? Position lights, Anti-collision lights, Landing lights,
Recognition (Halo) lights.
145. List the interior lights? Dimmable incandescent instrument bezel lights,
dimmable red LED instrument panel flood lights, reading lights that are dimmable
for the two front seats, and a dimmable overhead dome light.
146. Three controls exist for heating and ventilation. The cabin HEAT control does
what? Controls the amount of hot air that enters the mixing plenum (see POH
Figure 7-67).
147. The cabin COLD air control does what? Controls the amount of fresh cooling
air that enters the mixing plenum.
148. The cabin air selector does what? Controls the amount of conditioned air (air
leaving the mixing plenum) that flows to the cabin and/or the windshield defrost
diffuser. (Note: This control is located between the HEAT and COLD selectors
and is only marked with a defroster symbol and a human body symbol.)
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149. Where are the fresh air intakes and outlets? The intakes are in each wing’s
inboard leading edge. The right intake flows to the two right side cabin outlets
and the mixing plenum. The left intake flows to the two left side cabin outlets.
150. Where are the conditioned air outlets? The adjustable front seat outlets are
directly in front of each seat under the instrument panel. The rear seat outlets are
at floor level.
151. Where is the sensor for the stall warning horn? Behind the small hole in the
right wing’s leading edge.
152. Where are the pitot tube and static ports located? Pitot tube: under the left
wing. Static ports: one on each side of the aft fuselage.
153. What does the pitot heat caution light indicate? The pitot heat switch is in the
on position, but the pitot tube is not receiving electrical current.
154. Where is the ELT located and where is it’s control panel located? It is
installed behind the aft cabin bulkhead, and the control panel is installed
immediately below the circuit breaker panel next to the pilot’s right leg.
155. How can you tell if the ELT is transmitting? A flashing light on the control
panel.
156. Where is the hour meter located? Inside the armrest storage compartment.
157. What warnings apply to the Cirrus airplane parachute system: The system
does not require electrical power and can be activated at any time. The
solid-propellant rocket flight path is upward from the parachute cover. Stay clear
of the parachute canister area when the airplane is occupied. Do not allow
children in the aircraft unattended.
158. Describe the parachute activation procedure: Pull the activation T-handle
from its receptacle. Now, clasp both hands around the activation T-handle and
pull straight downward with a strong, steady, and continuous force.
HANDLING, SERVICE, MAINTENANCE, POH Section 8
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159. When pushing the airplane backward, must the tow bar be installed? Yes, to
keep the nose wheel from turning abruptly.
160. Can you push on the propeller or the horizontal or vertical tail surfaces when
moving the airplane? No, push on the wing roots.
161. If the airplane is towed by a vehicle, nose wheel turning is limited to: 90°.
162. What power setting should be used for taxiing? The minimum power needed
for forward movement. Excessive braking may result in overheated or damaged
brakes.
163. How can you make a minimum radius turn during ground handling? Rotate
the airplane around either main landing gear by pressing down on the fuselage
just forward of the horizontal stabilizer in order to raise the nose wheel off the
ground and pivot the airplane.
164. What are the proper tire pressures? Nose wheel: 40 psi. Main wheels: 53 psi.
165. Installation of the oil dipstick can be difficult. How should you do it? Point the
dipstick’s finger loop toward the airplane’s nose or tail, and allow the dipstick to
rotate as you push it into the engine.
166. When cleaning the windshield and windows, what hand motion should you
use? Linear- straight back and forth. Circular motion causes spirals in the
plexiglas which makes those scratches much more apparent when flying.
167. How should you clean the electronic display screens (PFD and MFD)? Gently
wipe the display with a clean, dry cotton cloth. Moisten a clean, cotton cloth with
Optiimax LCD Screen Cleaning Solution, wipe screens in one direction moving
from top to bottom, and then wipe the display clean with a clean, dry, cotton
cloth.
SUPPLEMENTS, POH Section 9
Garmin GTX 335-Transponder
168. Do you turn the transponder to STBY after engine start? No, that occurs
automatically when you turn on the avionics power.
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169. When do you place the transponder to the ALT position? Never. If the
transponder is in STBY, it automatically goes to ALT when airspeed reaches 35
knots, and it automatically returns to STBY when airspeed decreases below 35
knots.
GMC 707 Autopilot
170. Is the GMC 707 Autopilot POH required to be on the airplane during flight?
Yes, and it must be available to the pilot while in flight.
171. How can you disconnect the autopilot? Push in the Coolie Hat on the control
yoke or pull the autopilot circuit breaker on the non-essential avionics bus.
172. List and explain the autopilot pre-flight tests:
● When avionics power is turned on, all autopilot annunciators except CWS
and TRIM illuminate and then go off after 5 seconds. When the turn
coordinator reaches operating rpm, the RDY light will illuminate.
● Heading mode test: Center HDG bug under lubber line on HSI.
Momentarily press HDG button on autopilot and note that HDG
illuminates. Rotate HDG knob and note that control yoke follows
movement to the left and right.
● Vertical speed test: Press VS button and note that VS light illuminates
VS+0. Rotate the VS control knob to 500 fpm up and the control yoke
should move aft after a short delay. Rotate the VS control knob to 500 fpm
down and the control yoke should move forward after a short delay.
● Altitude hold test: Depress the ALT button. Note that ALT annunciator
comes on, VS annunciator goes out, and yoke does not move.
● Overpower test: Grasp control yoke and input left and right aileron and
nose up and nose down to overpower autopilot. Overpower action should
be smooth in each direction with no noise or jerky feel.
● Radio check: Turn on NAV 1 radio with a valid NAV signal and select
VLOC for display on the HSI. Engage NAV mode and move OBS so that
VOR deviation needle moves left or right. Note that control yoke follows
direction of needle movement.
● Autopilot disconnect test: Press the Coolie Hat switch on the control yoke.
Note that autopilot disconnects. Move control yoke to confirm that pitch
and roll control is free with no control restriction or binding. If a pilot is in
the copilot’s seat, repeat the disconnect test using the copilot’s disconnect
switch.
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173. From where does the autopilot receive its signals? The turn coordinator, the
HSI, and the #1 NAV/GPS radio.
174. List and explain the autopilot operating modes:
● RDY (ready): Autopilot is ready for engagement.
● HDG (heading) mode: Autopilot will hold the heading set on the HSI.
● NAV (navigation) mode: Autopilot will provide intercept and tracking of
GPS, VOR, and Localizer courses. It automatically sets up a 45° intercept.
● GPSS (GPS Steering) mode: Pressing NAV twice will cause the autopilot
to go to GPSS for smoother tracking and transitions. The autopilot is
directly coupled to the roll steering command produced by the GPS
navigator, eliminating the need for the pilot to make adjustments to the
HSI course arrow.
● REV (reverse course) mode: Autopilot will track the localizer back course
inbound and the localizer front course outbound.
● APR (Approach) mode: Provides increased sensitivity for VOR or GPS
approaches.
● GS (glideslope) mode: Autopilot will capture and track an ILS glideslope.
The airplane must be 60% or more below the glideslope centerline during
the approach to the intercept point, and with 50% needle deviation of the
localizer centerline at the point of intercept- usually the outer marker.
When these conditions have existed for 10 seconds, the GS annunciator
will illuminate indicating that GS arming has occurred. The ALT light will
go out when the glideslope is captured.
● ALT (altitude hold) mode: Autopilot will hold the altitude at the same time
the mode was selected providing a roll mode is engaged. Altitude
correction can be made by rotating the VS knob in the appropriate
direction. Altitude will change 20 feet for each click of the knob.
● VS (vertical speed) mode: Autopilot will synchronize to and hold the
vertical speed at the time the mode was selected. Vertical speed will
change by 100 rpm for each click of the VS knob.
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